Browse all practice questions for the 7/4 E Cardiovascular & Respiratory Practice Test. Search by topic, open any question and review its full explanation, then test yourself in the practice quiz.

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  • What practice helps prevent mucosal irritation and increased secretions during suctioning?
  • Winter's formula estimates what?
  • What is CPAP and when is it indicated?
  • Which auscultation finding would most support the use of a bronchodilator in a patient with dyspnea?
  • The atrioventricular valves prevent backflow during which cardiac phase?
  • What action should be taken when measuring a patient's PAWP?
  • Which characteristic describes sinus tachycardia?
  • Why should suction be applied only during withdrawal of the suction catheter?
  • Which description best matches a normal, swishing breath sound heard on auscultation?
  • Which statement about communication with a patient who has an endotracheal tube is true?
  • What is the primary purpose of the diffusion capacity (DLCO) test?
  • Which action would prevent postoperative respiratory complications after abdominal surgery?
  • What does CPAP stand for?
  • How does congestive heart failure influence cardiac output and compensatory mechanisms?
  • Which ECG finding defines STEMI?
  • Which statement best contrasts asthma and COPD in terms of pathophysiology and bronchodilator reversibility?
  • After auscultating the chest, how would the nurse document bilateral, high-pitched, continuous whistling sounds heard during expiration?
  • Pleural friction rub is best described as which of the following?
  • CPAP is used for noninvasive ventilation in which scenario?
  • Capnography is used in EMS to monitor ventilation and adequacy of CPR by measuring end-tidal CO2. What best describes end-tidal CO2?
  • Pulsus paradoxus is defined as a greater than 10 mmHg drop in systolic BP during inspiration and is most commonly observed in which condition?
  • Which intervention is an appropriate initial action for a client presenting with chest pain?
  • Partial Rebreather Mask delivers oxygen at which concentration and flow rate, and maintains reservoir bag two-thirds full?
  • Which manifestation suggests cuff overinflation or cuff-related complications in tracheostomy care?
  • Partial Rebreather Mask—Why is the flow rate adjusted?
  • In profound (late) hypovolemic shock, which arterial blood gas abnormality is expected?
  • Which finding is NOT typically associated with left-sided heart failure?
  • Which finding may accompany pulmonary embolism?
  • Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped by the left ventricle per beat. Which of the following are its primary determinants?
  • Which statement best describes spirometry patterns in obstructive versus restrictive lung disease?
  • Which statement best describes a rightward shift of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve and its physiologic significance?
  • What is the purpose of the OPQRST mnemonic?
  • What is one result of sympathetic stimulation on the heart?
  • Which assessment is essential to verify the nasal cannula is delivering oxygen effectively?
  • What is the significance of the Pulmonary Capillary Wedge Pressure (PCWP) in hemodynamic monitoring?
  • At sea level on room air, what are the normal arterial partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide (PaO2 and PaCO2)?
  • Which are common signs and symptoms of pulmonary embolism?
  • To minimize tracheal trauma during suctioning, which technique should be used?
  • What is the mechanism of action of inhaled anticholinergic bronchodilators such as ipratropium and tiotropium?
  • For a patient with atelectasis, which intervention is most effective in reducing atelectasis?
  • Typical vital signs in heart failure include
  • What is the primary purpose of pursed-lip breathing?
  • Which assessment finding is consistent with bronchospasm?
  • What is the normal residual volume?
  • What is the purpose of arterial blood gas interpretation, and which parameters are considered key?
  • Which auscultation finding is typical of pulmonary edema?
  • Which statement best describes preload, afterload, and their effects on stroke volume?
  • Which measure promotes effective airway clearance in ARDS?
  • During CPR, the ETCO2 value that indicates better perfusion is typically
  • Dislodgement of a thrombus from the right atrium most likely results in which complication?
  • During meals, which intervention can promote gas exchange for a patient who is wearing a facemask?
  • Partial Rebreather Mask true statement?
  • Diffusing capacity for carbon monoxide in interstitial restrictive diseases is typically?
  • How do central and peripheral chemoreceptors influence respiration?
  • In COPD, oxygen therapy should be titrated to avoid CO2 retention. What SpO2 target is typically recommended?
  • Which description best characterizes restrictive lung disease on spirometry?
  • Which valve is also known as the bicuspid valve?
  • What is the primary function of the diaphragm in respiration?
  • Which of the following is NOT listed as a red flag of pediatric respiratory distress requiring urgent care?
  • Hyperoxygenating before and after suctioning helps prevent which complication?
  • Which valve prevents backflow from the left ventricle to the left atrium?
  • Which device is designed to defibrillate and is often implanted to prevent sudden cardiac death?
  • What is the maximum duration for suctioning with a catheter during insertion to minimize airway injury?
  • What is the typical FiO2 and flow rate range delivered by a simple facemask?
  • What is the normal tidal volume in a healthy adult at rest?
  • What are common signs of a pneumothorax?
  • Which of the following is a determinant of stroke volume?
  • Which statement correctly describes the relationship between afterload and stroke volume?
  • What are typical symptoms of pneumonia?
  • Which statement is not indicated for stoma management after a laryngectomy?
  • PAWP is used to estimate the pressure in which chamber?
  • Post-extubation nursing observation: which sign would indicate acute respiratory distress?
  • Diffusing capacity for carbon monoxide (DLCO) helps distinguish between obstructive and restrictive diseases. Which statement is true?
  • Which condition is most likely to have a normal DLCO?
  • If a patient on a nasal cannula increases their breathing rate, what happens to the amount of oxygen actually inspired?
  • What is the difference between an oropharyngeal airway and a nasopharyngeal airway?
  • Describe the mechanism and therapeutic effect of loop diuretics in heart failure.
  • What is the effect of increased venous return on preload and stroke volume?
  • What is the key difference between asthma and COPD regarding reversibility?
  • Which term is a general descriptor for abnormal breath sounds?
  • Which action should be taken to prevent tissue damage under a mask?
  • Orthopnea is defined as
  • Lactate in shock most directly indicates what?
  • What are typical signs of a myocardial infarction in men?
  • Which practice supports high-quality CPR?
  • Which describes hypoxic hypoxia and anemic hypoxia and how they affect oxygen delivery (DO2)?
  • Regarding low-flow oxygen delivery systems, which statement is true?
  • Which statement best describes a leftward shift of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve and its physiologic significance?
  • During airway suctioning, how long should a single suction pass last?
  • Which of the following is a classic sign of pulmonary edema?
  • In atrial fibrillation, inadequate atrial contraction leads to blood pooling and thrombus formation. Dislodgement of a thrombus from which chamber most commonly leads to embolic stroke?
  • Residual volume is defined as which of the following?
  • What are common contraindications to nitroglycerin in the EMS setting?
  • Which hormone directly promotes sodium and water retention in the RAAS?
  • Which assessment finding is commonly associated with right ventricular failure due to systemic venous congestion?
  • A lung exam finding commonly associated with heart failure
  • Normal systolic blood pressure range for a healthy adult is approximately
  • Which airway adjunct is more suitable for a patient who has a gag reflex intact but oral access is difficult?
  • Which factor would cause a leftward shift of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?
  • What is the function of the atrioventricular valves in the heart?
  • Which ventricle pumps blood into the systemic circulation?
  • Which condition is S4 most associated with?
  • How does the autonomic nervous system regulate heart rate?
  • A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is admitted with suspected pleuritis. Which assessment would be most important?
  • What is capnography used for in EMS?
  • What distinguishes stable angina from unstable angina?
  • Which explanation would you give about the purpose of cardiac catheterization in a patient with angina?
  • S1 is associated with closure of the AV valves and marks the onset of which phase?
  • Which statement best describes the required fit of a simple facemask to ensure adequate FiO2?
  • Defibrillation in arrhythmias is used to
  • For COPD patients, what is the generally recommended target SpO2 range to balance oxygenation and CO2 retention?
  • Which waveform on the ECG represents ventricular repolarization?
  • If heart rate doubles while stroke volume remains the same, what happens to cardiac output?
  • If a patient on ventilation does not respond to interventions, what is the appropriate next step?
  • A rhythm strip shows P waves preceding every QRS complex with a PR interval of 0.26 seconds. How would you classify this rhythm?
  • Which statement best describes intrinsic regulation of heart rate?
  • Which statement best describes the clinical significance of an S3 heart sound?
  • Which statement correctly describes the effect of fetal hemoglobin on the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?
  • What ECG finding is typically seen in an acute myocardial infarction within the first hour?
  • According to the Frank-Starling mechanism, how does increasing preload affect stroke volume?
  • Which assessment helps determine if nasal cannula oxygen delivery remains adequate when the patient’s breathing pattern changes?
  • Which breath sound would you expect to hear normally when auscultating the lungs?
  • A client's respiratory status deteriorates and endotracheal intubation with mechanical ventilation is instituted. What is the nurse's immediate action?
  • What is the recommended chest compression depth for adults?
  • Which factor most directly increases conduction velocity within the heart's conducting system?
  • After a cardiac catheterization via a femoral insertion site, which nursing action is appropriate?
  • Typically, how many suctioning passes are adequate to clear secretions?
  • What is the normal resting heart rate range for an adult?
  • Which measure reduces the risk of cuff-related tracheal injury in a patient with a tracheostomy?
  • What is a key reason for careful monitoring during oxygen therapy?
  • Which nursing intervention is specifically aimed at ensuring efficient oxygen delivery via nasal cannula?
  • What should be ensured after every chest compression to maximize venous return?
  • Which of the following describes signs of life-threatening asthma?
  • Which sign indicates hypoxemia?
  • A rapid atrial rhythm characterized by a sawtooth pattern of P waves on ECG is called?
  • What is the normal inspiratory reserve volume value in a healthy adult?
  • Which statement correctly defines Pulmonary Capillary Wedge Pressure (PCWP) in clinical assessment?
  • Which of the following sequences correctly represents the cardiac conduction pathway starting at the SA node?
  • Which statement is true for first-degree atrioventricular block?
  • What is the recommended cleansing method for the stoma site after a laryngectomy?
  • Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of pneumonia?
  • What is the purpose of suctioning during airway management?
  • Which invasive monitors are used to assess perfusion in shock?
  • A monitor shows regular rhythm with a rate of 120 beats per minute and a P wave before each QRS complex. Which rhythm best fits this presentation?
  • Which of the following invasive monitors are commonly used to assess perfusion in shock?
  • Which finding is most consistent with right-sided heart failure?
  • Which of the following is a common adverse effect of loop diuretics?
  • In the OPQRST mnemonic, Provocation/Palliation refers to what?
  • Which of the following is a potential cause of premature atrial contractions?
  • In heart failure, blood pressure can be high or low depending on compensation
  • How does the RAAS system contribute to volume overload in heart failure?
  • Which two medications are commonly administered in the field for chest pain of suspected cardiac origin, assuming no contraindications?
  • In the context of an acute myocardial infarction, reciprocal ST depression may be observed in which leads?
  • Which statement correctly identifies a first-line therapy for chronic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction and a commonly associated adverse effect?
  • Which ECG feature represents atrial depolarization?
  • In an arterial blood gas, which pattern reflects primary metabolic acidosis with appropriate respiratory compensation?
  • What is the normal tidal volume?
  • The mask limits the patient's ability to clear the mouth, especially if vomiting occurs. Which statement best describes aspiration risk?
  • Which intervention best addresses claustrophobia in a patient wearing a facemask?
  • Which statement best describes symptoms commonly seen in elderly patients with acute coronary syndrome (ACS)?
  • Which component of an electrocardiogram tracing represents ventricular depolarization?
  • What is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for single-rescuer adult CPR?
  • Which structure serves as the primary pacemaker of the heart?
  • During exercise, how does the respiratory system adapt to meet increased metabolic demands?
  • What is the mechanism of oxygen therapy and when should it be used in respiratory failure?
  • Which oxygen delivery device provides high concentration oxygen and is used for severe distress?
  • Interpret ABG with metabolic acidosis and elevated anion gap. Which description best fits this scenario?
  • In evaluating acute dyspnea, which finding would indicate that a bronchodilator might not be indicated?
  • In pneumothorax, percussion is typically what?
  • Define systole and diastole.
  • Which nerve carries parasympathetic input to the heart to slow heart rate?
  • What is the normal resting heart rate range for a healthy adult?
  • Which heart sound is associated with the closure of the AV valves and coincides with the onset of ventricular systole?
  • What is the normal expiratory reserve volume?
  • In the post-anesthesia care unit, a client reports shortness of breath and chest pain. Which is the most appropriate initial response by the nurse?
  • Which is the correct order of the cardiac conduction system starting from the natural pacemaker?
  • In myocardial ischemia, which chemical mediator stimulates sensory nerves and contributes to chest pain?
  • What is the alveolar-arterial (A-a) gradient and why is it clinically relevant?
  • Standard EMS management for an acute asthma attack includes
  • Which symptoms are more characteristic of hypercapnia than acute hypoxemia?
  • Why is SpO2 commonly targeted at 88-92% in COPD patients receiving oxygen therapy?
  • A client arrives with multiple crush injuries to the chest, abdomen, and legs. Which assessments are the highest priority?
  • Which position helps a patient with chest pain improve breathing?
  • In the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, what does an increase in P50 indicate?
  • Which device is classified as a low-flow oxygen delivery system?
  • Reservoir bag fullness indicating adequate flow is two-thirds full. Which option describes this correctly?
  • During resuscitation after cardiac arrest, an arterial blood gas shows a low pH. Which is the most likely cause?
  • New Q waves in the ECG may develop after an acute myocardial infarction in which timeline?
  • Cyanosis is a sign of which condition?
  • In the cardiac conduction system, which structure connects the AV node to the bundle branches?
  • In chest trauma with chest pain, which complication must be considered?
  • When should high-flow oxygen be used based on SpO2?
  • What pattern of ventilation-perfusion mismatch is typical in pulmonary embolism?
  • In an acute asthma attack, oxygen therapy is used to
  • What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac arrest in adults?
  • Which statement correctly describes verbal communication with an intubated patient?
  • Which lifestyle factor would most likely contribute to ankle edema in a client with heart failure?
  • CPAP is used for noninvasive ventilation in which scenario?
  • In trauma management, which assessment pair represents the immediate priorities after establishing airway patency?
  • Which component of the conduction system is located between the AV node and the right and left bundle branches?
  • Which sound is commonly associated with pulmonary edema?
  • Which description best characterizes vesicular breath sounds?
  • In heart failure, what happens to urine output?
  • Which of the following describes the effects of sympathetic stimulation on the heart?
  • Which action helps prevent drying and mucosal irritation when a nasal cannula is used?
  • In emphysema, what condition leads to hypoxia due to loss of gas-exchange surface?
  • What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for two-rescuer adult CPR?
  • What signs suggest a tension pneumothorax?
  • Nitroglycerin in chest pain primarily causes
  • Which statement best describes sleep apnea's effect on cardiovascular risk?
  • A client with COPD has a blood pH of 7.25 and a PCO2 of 60 mm Hg. Which complication would the nurse suspect?
  • During cardiac arrest, an AED is indicated in which scenario?
  • What is the role of aspirin in suspected acute coronary syndrome (ACS)?
  • Which of the following are typical risk factors for acute coronary syndrome?
  • Why is systemic vasodilation in acute heart failure not always beneficial?
  • Upon arrival to the emergency department with acute dyspnea, which finding would suggest that an inhaled bronchodilator may be needed?
  • The PR Interval on an ECG represents depolarization of which structures?
  • The Fick equation for cardiac output is CO = HR × SV. What does each term represent?
  • During a coronary occlusion with chest pain, what is the primary reason for administering oxygen?
  • Which statement about CPAP is true?
  • What is the approximate normal range for SvO2, and what does a low SvO2 indicate?
  • Which biomarker is commonly elevated in myocardial injury and used in evaluating chest pain?
  • Which heart sound is associated with the closure of the semilunar valves and occurs at the end of systole?
  • Which chamber receives oxygenated blood from the lungs?
  • During airway management, when should suction be used?
  • In a patient with pleuritis due to COPD, which management aspect is contraindicated?
  • Which class of bronchodilators provides rapid relief of bronchospasm in COPD and asthma?
  • Which practice is most appropriate when suctioning a client's endotracheal tube?
  • Which medication is typically given in chewable form in the field for suspected cardiac chest pain, when not contraindicated?
  • What is the primary purpose of suctioning in endotracheal care?
  • What is the pathophysiology of pulmonary edema in left-sided heart failure?
  • Which symptom is most characteristic of left-sided heart failure?
  • Partial Rebreather Mask—If the reservoir bag deflates, what is the consequence?
  • During transport, capnography provides ongoing information about which aspects?
  • What is the primary cause of chest pain in acute coronary syndrome?
  • Which statement about mean arterial pressure (MAP) is correct and why is it clinically important?
  • For suspected ACS, if aspirin is not contraindicated, what dose is recommended?
  • What is the recommended depth for adult chest compressions?
  • Which finding indicates cerebral hypoxia during acute respiratory distress?
  • What is the normal resting ejection fraction range for a healthy adult?
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